Rohan Patel

MSIT

1.		Which of the following types of research is conducted to evaluate specific courses of action or forecast current or future values? a.         Reporting studies b.         Explanation studies c.         Description studies d.         Prediction studies
2.		Which of the following is not an example of research? a.         An experiment in product taste preferences. b.         A statistical analysis of errors in the recording of inventories. c.         A test of cognitive dissonance theory and major investment decisions. d.         A simulation of the information flows in an organization. e.         A decision to change the firm’s method of accounting.
3.		Are any of the following not a good reason for managers to be well grounded in basic research? a.         Do some research for themselves. b.         Make competent decisions on whether to make or ‘buy’ research from researchers outside the firm. c.         Define their own needs and form researchable questions for the specialist. d.         Judge the logic of a research approach. e.         All are good reasons.
4.		Applied research: a.         Has little direct impact on policy decisions. b.         Is problem directed but not decision directed. c.         Is problem directed and closely related to policy or action needs. d.         Calls for a hypothesis to initiate the research.
5.		Which of the following observations on research is correct? a.         Needs for research have stagnated as computers have replaced human effort. b.         Improved quantitative methods have made predictions perfect. c.         Increasing complexities in technology and business increase the need for research. d.         Increasing market turbulence and uncertainty have made research less relevant.
6.		Data was analyzed and it showed that: a salesperson’s performance is directly and positively related to the salesperson’s level of education. This is an example of what type of research? a.         Descriptive b.         Reporting c.         Predictive d.         Explanatory
7.		A predictive study showed that a company would gain a 10% market share if it reduced its product price by $5. The study assumed competitors would keep the prices of their products unchanged. a.         This study can be used in all situations. b.         The company should reduce its product price by $5. c.         As the company cannot control the price decisions of its competitors so the study is not very useful. d.         A new study focusing on a smaller number of variables is required.
8.		An estimate of next year’s market share is an example of what type of research? a.         Descriptive b.         Reporting c.         Predictive d.         Explanatory
9.		Good research studies: a.         Declare their limitations and flaws in procedure. b.         Always have hypotheses. c.         Are always done by experienced researchers. d.         Give results in general; precision does not give room for creative interpretation.
10.		Which of the following is basic rather than applied research: a.         Sleep duration, as impacting work efficiency. b.         Disruption of cognitive ability under stress. c.         The relationship between leadership traits and corporate success. d.         Work towards the discovery of a possible new element.
11.		To ensure that the best possible research is done: a.         Managers should indicate their problems to researchers as decision choices rather than information requirements. b.         Managers should specify all information requirements, to define the researcher’s task. c.         Research should exclude all possible areas of manager-researcher conflict. d.      A workable balance between manager and researchers cannot be based on sensitivity to the demands and restrictions imposed on the other.
12.		The value of applied research in a managerial environment comes from: a.         The fact that it uses the required technical terminology. b.         Its help in decision making. c.         It presents facts in the most positive way. d.         It contributes to speculation on business opportunities.
13.		Which of the following is a true statement? a.       Intuitive and experienced people do not require research skills. b.      Research can provide guideposts even to experienced and intuitive people. c.      Research skills are required only at an early stage of a career. d.      Research skills are irrelevant if prior research data exists.
14.		Research involves: a.         The identification of quality information, not its computerized processing. b.         An application of scientific methods to information collection and analysis. c.         Creating the architecture for data warehousing. d.         The use of complex models rather than simpler quantitative methods.

1.		Which of the following are concepts? a.       Shoe b.      Chair c.      Store d.      Pain e.      All of the above
2.		Which of the following is true about empiricism? a.       It uses basic laws of nature, and reasons from them. b.      Requires observations and propositions based on experience and inductions therefrom. c.      Uses reason, but on debatable issues resorts to the method of authority. d.      Requires proofs based on essential truths.
3.		Scientific knowledge is more consistent with: a.       Rationalism and reason, not data driven approaches. b.      Existentialism. c.      An empiricist focus and the use of both deduction and induction. d.      All of the above.
4.		Which of the following is most true about a construct? a.       It must always be directly observable. b.      It usually is directly observable. c.      It usually is not directly observable. d.      It can be sharply differentiated from a concept.
5.		Which, if any, of the following is not an operational definition? A good student is: a.       One who passes this course. b.      One whom we agree to be a good student. c.      One who ranks in the top one-half of his/her class. d.      One who is a superior student. e.      More than one of the above are not operational definitions.
6.		Which of the following operational definitions is inadequate? Major competitors for a particular product are: a.       Other manufacturers of the product with a market share greater than 10%. b.      Other manufacturers of the product with an investment in excess of $20 million. c.      Other manufacturers with highly skilled managers. d.      Other companies with a growth rate higher than the growth rate of the industry.
7.		Deductive reasoning: a.       Purports to be conclusive. b.      Must have both true and valid premises. c.      Should be combined with induction to obtain scientific knowledge. d.      All of the above.
8.		Which of the following is an explanatory hypothesis? a.       Forty percent of Company Y stockholders favor the dismissal of their company president. b.      American consumers feel that cars manufactured before 1980 are safer than those manufactured today. c.      Warning labels on cigarette packages concerning the dangers of smoking have led to a decrease in the growth of smokers in this country. d.      Vice President McGill has higher than average verbal skills.
9.		Which is the most correct statement? a.       Most of us seldom use theories. b.      Constructs are used only in explanatory hypotheses. c.      In induction we observe facts and draw conclusions from them. d.      While operational definitions are very useful, there are many good research studies that do not use them.
10.		The double movement of reflective thought is a.       A process of deduction b.      A process of induction c.      A process of construct building d.      None of the above is an adequate explanation
11.		Which of the following are correct? a.       Dichotomous variables are discrete or categorical variables that can take two values only. b.      Continuous variables may take any value in a range. c.      Income can take any value, but if income data is transformed as two categories of high and low income, then there is a loss of information. d.      All of the above.
12.		Which is not a useful way in which a theory serves research? a.       It narrows the range of facts the researcher must study. b.      It suggests which approach to a problem is likely to yield the greatest meaning. c.      It suggests a system for the researcher to impose on data in order to classify it meaningfully. d.      It suggests a framework from which the researcher can search for data which supports his own beliefs.
13.		In which of the statements is the classification of the variable incorrect? a.       Sales training improves sales through improving selling ability (intervening variable.) b.      Medicine A is more effective on males rather than females. Gender is a moderating variable. c.      High-octane fuels improve speeds particularly in smaller engines. Here engine size is a moderating variable. d.      None of the above.
14.		Which of the following is not stated as a hypothesis? a.       Price increases lead to major changes in demand. b.      The power of ESP is greater in females than in males. c.      Americans perceive Japanese products as superior to Korean products. d.      None of the above.
15.		In the following pairs of related variables, which pair appears incorrectly classified? a.       Product demand (dependent) : Price (independent) b.      Work efficiency (dependent) : Productivity (independent) c.      Number of telemarketing calls (dependent): Sales (independent) d.      Incidence of fever (dependent): Spread of virus (independent)
16.		Which of the following statements are correct? a.       Models are representations rather than explanations. b.      Models are used for both description and simulation. c.      Dynamic models represent the evolution of systems over time. d.      All of the above.
17.		Which of the following is correct? a.       Only deductive arguments can be proved. b.      Only inductive arguments can be proved. c.      Both inductive and deductive arguments can be proved. d.      Neither can be proved.
18.		For a deduction to be correct thereby implying a conclusion and representing a proof it must be: a.       true but not necessarily valid b.      valid but not necessarily true c.      valid and the conclusion must necessarily follow from the premises. d.      valid and the premises given for the conclusion must agree with the real world.
19.		Which is true concerning the differences or similarities between a theory and a hypothesis? a.       Both tend to be simple, two variable propositions involving concrete instances. b.      Theories tend to be more abstract and involve more variables than does a hypothesis. c.      Both tend to be abstract and involve multiple variables. d.      Both tend to be very abstract, but a hypothesis is typically a two-variable proposition.

1.		Identify the incorrect statement: a.       Method bound research is more successful because problems are recast in keeping with special competencies. b.      Attractive databases distract us from the other needs of research. c.      Research should be grounded in management decision priorities. d.      Experimental designs can be used in social sciences.
2.			In the research process which of the following is critical to success? a.       Pilot testing. b.      A thorough understanding of the problem. c.      Detailed analysis of results. d.      A good design for a sampling plan.
3.			Which of the following is typically not a part of the formal research plan? a.       Definition of the major concepts and constructs. b.      Specification of research techniques/methods. c.      Coding and tabulating instructions. d.      Time and cost budgets.
4.			An exploratory study should: a.       Start with key interviews. b.      Start with secondary data and internet searches. c.      Be excluded if it appears to be expensive. d.      None of the above.
5.			The fine tuning of a research question: a.       Precedes secondary data research. b.      Is avoidable, since early respondent information is lost. c.      Is useful only in multi stage sampling. d.      Improves the reliability and validity of the subsequent research. e.      Both answers A and D are correct.
6.			Measurement Questions: a.       In an observational study, measurement questions are the observations themselves. b.      Are not relevant to qualitative studies. c.      Are used only with sampling procedures. d.      Are inferred, rather than on the questionnaire.
7.			An ill defined management problem: a.       Evokes disagreement amongst problem solvers. b.      Evokes a variable set of responses regarding permissible operations and consequences. c.      Is sometimes value laden. d.      All of the above.
8.			Ex post facto research evaluation is: a.       Before the research. b.      Conducted ex ante. c.      A cost benefit analysis, before the research is done. d.      All the above.
9.			Which of the following is inappropriate for the management question: a.       Is framed only after choosing the purpose or objective. b.      Can be framed to choose the purpose or objective. c.      Can seek the identification of the solution to problems. d.      Can focus on identifying control strategies.
10.			Which of the following observations on the management dilemma is incorrect? a.       It is an unresearchable research issue. b.      It is a symptom of an actual problem. c.      Can be a condition in the environment that signals the need for a decision. d.      Can be the outcome of a controversy.

1.		The research experiment is superior to the ex post facto research design when the researcher: a.      Must avoid influencing the variables under study and therefore avoid biasing the results. b.      Needs to cause variables to be changed or held constant in keeping with specified research objectives. c.      Is limited to holding all factors constant by selection of subjects according to strict sampling procedures and statistical manipulation of findings. d.      Decides to use the design more common to research in the social sciences and business.
2.		The basic method by which we determine equivalence between study and control groups in an ex post facto study is by a.      Matching b.      Definition c.      Induction d.      Random assignment
3.		The basic method by which equivalence between experimental and control groups is determined is a.      Matching b.      Definition c.      Frequency control d.      Cross-classifying e.      Random assignment
4.		Which of the following statements is false with respect to the two-stage research approach to a management question? The two-stage approach: a.      Often uncovers evidence that a major study is unnecessary in the first stage. b.      Is particularly useful when the research is to be done on a fixed cost basis. c.      Is particularly useful when the complications and problems that will be encountered are difficult to anticipate. d.      Is less expensive and less in-depth than a one-stage research approach.
5.		Which of the following can be classified as a causal research study? The researcher is attempting to find out: a.      What percentage of the population believes consumer products are of the same or better quality today than 10 years ago? b.      Which manufacturers in the U.S. contribute the highest percentage of their net income to private non-profit organizations? c.      How the murder rate in Detroit fluctuates with the economy and population trends. d.      Why unemployment is higher in Chicago than Houston.
6.		Research designs may be viewed as being a.      Exploratory or experimental b.      Laboratory or ex post facto c.      Cross-sectional or case d.      Descriptive or causal e.      Longitudinal or statistical
7.		In an exploratory study the first step usually should be a.      Defining a hypothesis b.      Seek ‘‘insight-stimulating’’ interviews c.      Develop the research design d.      Estimate the cost of the study e.      Do a literature search.
8.		The interactions between two sets of variables may reflect relationships that are a.      Symmetrical b.      Reciprocal c.      Asymmetrical d.      All of the above
9.		The introduction of a four day week leads to increased productivity particularly among young workers by improving job satisfaction.” In this statement, improving job satisfaction is the: a.      Independent Variable b.      Dependent Variable c.      Intervening Variable d.      Moderating Variable
10.		Which of the following is not a good basis for classifying research designs? a.      Degree of research problem crystallization b.      The time dimension c.      The nature of the relationships among variables d.      The importance of the problem being studied.
11.		The statistical study differs from the case study in that: a.      The statistical study has greater depth than the case study, b.      The case study has both greater depth and breadth over the statistical study. c.      The case study places more emphasis on the full analysis of a limited number of events and their interrelations. d.      The statistical study places an emphasis on both a full analysis of the complete range of events and is greatly concerned about analyzing interrelationships.
12.		Which of the following is not a type of symmetrical relationship? a.      Disposition-behavior b.      Property-behavior c.      Property-disposition d.      Stimulus-response e.      Stimulus-property
13.		The major relationships of interest to the research analyst are those which are a.      Asymmetrical b.      Exclusive c.      Independent d.      Reciprocal e.      Symmetrical
14.		The research design of a particular study: a.      Details the experimental methodology. b.      Details the study’s first stage data gathering techniques c.      Is the plan or structure of research developed to answer the research questions. d.      Is the evaluation of cost and time constraints.
15.		Exploratory studies: a.      Are investigative studies to refine research questions, but exclude secondary data analysis. b.      Have loose structures, which explore information to develop hypotheses and refine research questions. c.      Cannot be longitudinal. d.      None of the above.
16.		Which of the studies below is incorrectly classified? a.      Steel made in plant A has a higher tolerance than that in plant B. (Formal) b.      Buyer movements in a supermarket. (Observational) c.      The growth of the sugar industry. (Longitudinal and descriptive) d.      The hypothesis that advertising expenditure does not impact the sales of automobiles. (Exploratory and descriptive)
17.		Which of the following statements is correct: a.      Experimental design is useful in the study of a variable’s effects on other variables. b.      Experimental design is inappropriate if a randomization procedure can be adopted. c.      An ex post facto design is used if the variables cannot be controlled and manipulated. d.      A and B are both correct. e.      A and C are both correct.
18.		Case studies: a.      Place emphasis on a full contextual analysis of fewer events. b.      Are always inferior to statistical studies that are broad based. c.      Often uses qualitative data that makes the support or rejection of hypothesis difficult. d.      All of the above. e.      Only A and C are correct.
19.		Which of the following is not a qualitative technique? a.      Videotaping interviews. b.      Case studies. c.      Street ethnography. d.      Measuring the quality of electric bulbs, in terms of their life in working hours.
20.		An experience survey is: a.      Superior to a focus group since it uses experts. b.      A survey where we seek the respondents’ ideas on the subject. c.      Biased, because not everyone’s opinions can be obtained. d.      Conducted in a group so that everyone is studying the same question.

1.		In the most literal sense what does one ‘‘measure’’? a.       Objects b.      Properties c.      Things d.      Indicants
2.		For which one off the following types of scales the mode is the most appropriate measure of central tendency? a.       Ordinal b.      Ratio c.      Interval d.      Nominal
3.		In order to improve our measurement of worker attitudes we devise a 20-item attitude scale. We then divide the 20 items randomly into two scales with 10 items in each and administer these two scales to a group of people. This is an example of: a.       Concurrent validity testing b.      Construct validity testing c.      Stability testing d.      Equivalence testing
4.		A measurement instrument can distort research results in several ways. One of the most important of these is: a.       The interviewer distorts responses by recording. b.      There is a poor sampling of the universe of content. c.      There is a danger that a second person will distort results d.      None of these e.      More than one of these
5.		Which of the following is an incorrect classification of “scale”? a.       Attitude measured on a semantic differential scale. (Interval) b.      Weight measured in kilograms. (Ratio) c.      Gender: with males assigned the number 1, and females the number 0. (Ordinal) d.      Rank position in an Examination. (Ordinal)
6.		In the following examples, where is the “error” incorrectly specified? a.       A researcher tends to seek better-dressed respondents. (Systematic error) b.      A questionnaire on income seeks salary information, and omits interest income. (Systematic) c.      X selects houses at random, but selection Y is very unlike the norm. (Random) d.      The thermometer used to measure the temperature of subjects in a medical survey is chosen at random, but has incorrect markings. (Random)
7.		Which of the following is/are correct? a.       If a question in a questionnaire is verbally rephrased, then the measurer is the error source. b.      If a questionnaire uses ambiguous wording, then the instrument is the error source. c.      If a question is a “leading question,” then the instrument is the error source. d.      Both A and e.      All A, B, and C
8.		Which of the following refers to content validity? a.       Repeated administrations of the same test on different subjects get the same results. b.      Experts all over the world agree on the dimensions of the construct. c.      The same results have been obtained by many experts in an experiment. d.      Both A and C refer to content validity issues.
9.		Which of the following statements refers to concurrent validity issues? a.       The study is being done concurrently at four locations. b.      The model of the 1994 study can be used this year. c.      The present study is descriptive, based on current data. d.      None of the above.
10.		Which of the following statements refer to the reliabilities, as indicated in the parentheses? a.       The administration of the instrument at different times on the same subjects yielded different results. (Stability is low) b.      The measure, used on different subjects yielded similar results. (Equivalence is good) c.      The split half administrations of the questionnaire on one particular dimension of attitude, correlated well. (Internal consistency is good) d.      A, B, and C are all correct.
11.		One type of scale is defined as having “both order and distance, but no unique origin.” Which is it? a.       Nominal b.      Ratio c.      Interval d.      Ordinal
12.		Which of the following describes a form of criterion related validity? a.       Face validity b.      Concurrent validity c.      Content validity d.      Construct validity
13.		If we use a scale setting up 5 categories of ethnic origins what type of scale would this represent? a.       Nominal b.      Ratio c.      Interval d.      Ordinal
14.		Which of the following is a hierarchical listing of measurement scales in terms of increasing power? a.       Nominal, interval, ordinal, ratio b.      Ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval c.      Nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio d.      Nominal, ordinal, ratio, interval e.      None of these
15.		Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between reliability and validity? a.       A measurement can be valid and not reliable. b.      A measurement can be reliable and not valid. c.      A reliable measure is relatively free from systematic error, while a valid measure is free of random error. d.      Of the two, the more powerful measurement concept is reliability.
16.		Three common forms of reliability are: a.       Accuracy, precision, stability b.      Accuracy, stability, equivalence c.      Equivalence, precision, stability d.      Stability, equivalence, internal consistency
17.		Measurement should also meet the test of practicality. Practicality is typically defined in terms of: a.       Economy, accuracy, and interpretability b.      Convenience, economy, and interpretability c.      Economy, consistency, and interpretability d.      Convenience, consistency, and interpretability e.      Convenience, economy, and consistency
18.		Which of the following would indicate convergent validity of a new instrument? a.       Congruence of repeated measures with the same instrument. b.      High positive correlation with the results of other instruments which measure the same construct. c.      Correlation with results when the instrument is tested on other subjects. d.      All of the above.
19.		A measuring device may be called convenient if: a.       If the instructions to the interviewer are longer than those to the respondent. b.      The questions are complex, because human thought processes are complex. c.      Even complex questions are expressed in the simplest, and easy to understand way. Examples are given wherever needed. d.      The main design focus is to make the processes of questionnaire administration simple for the researcher.
20.		In forming a measure of public speaking competence we decide to look for 3 things: voice presentation, diction and language use, and physical presentation. Which of the steps in the process of measurement tools development are represented above? a.       Concept development b.      Dimension specification c.      Selection of observable indicators d.      Combination of indicators into an index.

1.		In classical SD scaling, Suci and his associates found three latent psychological meaning factors that emerged repeatedly in studies. Which of these normally is the most important in terms of extractable variance? a.       Activity b.      Dynamism c.      Evaluation d.      Potency or power
2.		Six different approaches were suggested by which to classify scales into the various types suggested. Of these, which is used as the primary way to organize the discussion in the chapter? a.       Degree of preference b.      Study objective c.      Scale properties d.      Number of dimensions e.      Scale construction methods
3.		Which of the following is not a form of scale as classified by the method of scale construction? a.       Consensus b.      Rating c.      Cumulative d.      Factor
4.		Which of the following scales is classed as a ranking scale?  a.       Method of paired comparisons b.      Consequences scale c.      Graphic scale d.      Cumulative scale
5.		One of the problems in using rating scales is that their use often results in a halo effect. This effect describes: a.       The tendency for certain persons to be easy raters b.      The tendency for raters to be reluctant to give extreme judgments c.      The tendency to give a subject the same score on different scale items d.      None of the above
6.		A major problem with using the method of paired comparison is that a.       People have difficulty understanding the method when it is used with them. b.      If there are many stimuli to judge, the method becomes tedious c.      There is a strong risk of halo effect d.      The results can not be converted into interval scale results
7.		The composite-standard type of scale construction is an effort to a.       Convert an ordinal scale into an interval scale b.      Develop a cumulative scale c.      Simplify scale construction d.      Make rating scales more accurate
8.		The quality of an arbitrary scale depends largely upon a.       The form of the scale b.      Whether it can be viewed as an ordinal scale c.      The subjective logic underlying the scale d.      Whether it is a rating or ranking scale
9.		Which of the following is generally viewed as being a consensus scale?  a.       Thurstone differential b.      Likert c.      Guttman d.      Semantic
10.		The Thurstone Differential scale a.       Is usually developed by using the item analysis technique b.      Usually is a 5 point scale c.      Is one of the easiest to construct d.      Is claimed to be an interval scale
11		The Likert type scale a.       Is often developed by the consensus method b.      Provides less data than does the Thurstone scale c.      Is claimed to be an interval scale by its advocates d.      Is easy to use both in respondent-centered and stimulus- centered studies
12.		Factor scales have been developed in an effort to a.       Deal more adequately with a multidimensional universe of content b.      Uncover latent dimensions in attitudes c.      Develop unidimensional scales d.      Do two of the above
13.		A consensus scale a.       Is one where the respondents give identical answers b.      Is one where item analysis is used to develop a scale c.      Is one where a panel of judges is used to identify items d.      Is identical to factor scales
14.		A study of the intercorrelation of items on an instrument is used in the construction of__? a.       Ranking scales b.      Cumulative scales c.      Factor scales d.      None of the above
15.		A simple category scale a.       Has a single category b.      Is dichotomous c.      Is only yes or no d.      Can have two discrete categories e.      B and D are both correct f.       B and C are both correct
16.		16. The Likert scale a.       Is developed using a consensus approach b.      Includes items that have met a test of discriminability c.      Is a frequently used variation of the summated rating scale d.      B and C are both correct e.      A, B, and C, are all correct
17.		Leniency occurs when a.       A respondent says yes rather than no (yea-sayer) b.      A respondent is an easy rather than hard rater c.      Avoids giving extreme judgments d.      All of the above are correct
18.		Which of the following can be used to study product choice, when choice is determined by many product aspects such as color, price, durability, etc.? a.       Conjoint analysis b.      Multidimensional scaling c.      Paired identification of attributes d.      A and B, both can be used
19.		The halo effect: a.       Creates a random bias b.      Creates a systematic bias c.      Creates both a random and systematic bias d.      Does not bias results
20.		A scaling approach using a seven point scale and pairs of bipolar adjectives is known as a a.       Semantic Differential scale b.      Guttman Scalogram c.      Comparative Judgment scale d.      Likert type scale

1.		Which of the following is a major disadvantage of secondary data sources? a.       The information collection is time consuming b.      The information often does not fit our needs c.      One can't gather historical data easily d.      The process is usually more expensive than the use of primary       sources
2.		In terms of research sources, published data can be identified or located in several types of information sources. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a.       Atlases b.      Directories c.      Indexes and Bibliographies d.      Handbooks
3.		The best way to learn the names of periodicals that may be published, in the United States about the stone quarry industry would be to search the: a.      Statistical Abstract of the United States b.      Ulrich's International Directory c.       Bibliographic Index d.      Business Periodicals Index
4.		Probably the best quick source for articles on sales management problems would be the: a.       BPI b.      Readers Guide to Periodical Literature c.       ASTI d.      Wall Street Journal Index
5.		Suppose you were starting a research study based upon secondary sources about the use of computers for educational purposes in colleges. You should probably begin by: a.       Checking your library's online catalog b.      Search Books-in-Print for new publications on this topic c.       Check several bibliographic indexes d.      Since this is a new technology area, consult the appropriate Doctoral Dissertation Abstracts bulletins.
6.		The U.S. government publishes a number of censuses. Which of the following is carried out once every ten years? a.       Census of Manufactures b.      Census of Business c.      Census of Housing d.      None of the above
7.		There are four monthly U.S. Government periodicals that provide the majority of current statistics on our economy and its operation. Which of the following is not one of these? a.       The Economic Journal of Statistics b.      The Survey of Current Business c.       The Federal Reserve Bulletin d.      The Business Conditions Digest
8.		Which of the following is NOT a good reason for using secondary data? a.       Data on the past cannot be collected today b.      Even if the definitions of variables being studied are not the same, research can be modified according to secondary data available. c.      The time involved in primary data collection may render the study obsolete. d.      Authentic data required may already have been collected by other agencies.
9.		For an organization, which of the following is NOT an example of an internal source of secondary data? a.       The data stored in the records of the Management Information System. b.      Surveys collected by the internal sales staff, from the company's distributors. c.      A market survey commissioned by the organization, completed three years ago. d.      Inventory records of the materials department.
10.		Data on a university's enrollments are available in all university departments through a client server network. This data availability is best referred to as "information available ____ a.       Online b.      Internet-based c.      Data warehoused d.      Intranet-based (LAN)
11.		An inter library loan is: a.       A financial arrangement between libraries, from a common source of finance. b.      An arrangement between libraries to cooperate on the sharing of costs relating to electronic databases. c.      An arrangement to obtain hardcopy material from other libraries, if the lending library does not have it. d.      A financial facility to enable students to buy discarded library books.
12.		A URL is? a.       Unique Remote Location where a data mart is located b.      An unauthorized Internet user c.      Internet address where a document, database, or image is located d.      Internet dedicated client server station
13.		Hypertext is?             a.       Text which cannot be accessed through the Internet b.      Consists of instructions to the Internet on how documents link to other documents c.      An unreadable Internet output because of an overload d.      A programming language similar to Java
14.		The search engine consists of? a.       A set of linked documents b.      A set of computerized databases c.      An Internet "crawler" and the "indexer" to prepare searchable indexes. d.      All of the above
15.		You have learned that there is a serial published under the title, Journal of Accounting Research. You go to your library and find they do not have it. Which of the following would be most helpful to you in this situation? a.      Ayer's Directory of Publications b.      Coman's Sources of Business Information c.      Union List of Serials d.      Library of Congress Subject Catalog
16.		You are about to begin a computerized search using CD-ROM. What is your first step? a.       Type in the search query b.      Record all of the references that are reported c.      Plan a research strategy d.      Select the appropriate database
17.		The fastest growing area of published sources is a.       Government documents b.      Computerized databases c.      Specialized periodicals d.      Books
18.		One of the disadvantages of computerized searches is a.       A computer search can combine subject items in different ways than is possible using a manual search. b.      Computerized databases do not contain references to the most recent published periodicals. c.      Computers are hard for most people to use. d.      Computerized searches will find sources that contain the key words but each source may not be related to the subject of interest.
19.		You want to evaluate the results of a narrow online search that generated 100 hits. Which of the following would be most helpful in evaluating which of the sources you would look at first. a.       Purpose b.      Scope c.      Audience d.      Authority

1.		Which of the following would you choose as the least useful form of interview probing? a.      A brief assertion of understanding like '"I see" or "uh-huh." b.      A question like, "will you please repeat that?" c.      A comment like, '"anything else?" d.      A question like, "could you tell me a little more?"
2.		Research on the biasing effect of interviewers indicated that a.                  Interviewer bias is seldom a problem. b.                  It is not really clear how big the problem is. c.                  It is somewhat of a problem, but not a major one. d.                  It is the major problem in personal interviewing.
3.		The TDM approach to improving mail survey response rates depends largely on which of the following for its apparent success? a.                  A monetary incentive is included with the questionnaire. b.                  The cover letter is individually addressed. c.                  A carefully designed and tested questionnaire is developed. d.                  Care is taken with the many details that may affect response rates.
4.		Non response error occurs in survey work when a.                  The people we are interviewing refuse to answer. b.                  The responses given are not relevant. c.                  The respondents say, "I don't know" when they do know. d.                  The people we seek to interview are "not-at-home."
5.		A major type of error in seeking personal household interviews is that many respondents are not-at-home. In one major study it was found that as few as about        % of the respondents were found on the first call. a.                  80% b.                  60% c.                  30% d.                  10%
6.		Response error occurs from all but one of the following sources. Which one is not a response error source? a.                  Processing and tabulation errors b.                  "not-at-home" bias c.                  Interviewer bias d.                  Respondent bias
7.		The major weakness of mail surveys is a.                  The impersonality of the communication b.                  The inability to direct your message to a specific person c.                  The risk of a strong non-response bias d.                  The inability to secure confidential information through this medium
8.		To tackle the non-response problem we should a.                  Establish good relations with intermediaries, for the sake of positive communications to the selected respondent b.                  Substitute the selected respondent by the available intermediary c.                  Accept the non-response problem and enhance the size of the sample d.                  All of the above
9.		Probing refers to a.                  A technique of reaching deep inferences from limited data b.                  A system that biases results c.                  A system of stimulating respondents to answer more fully d.                  A system which stimulates responses, but is ideally unbiased e.                  A and E are both correct
10.		Which of the following would not be good way to probe? a.                  Expectant pause b.                  Anything more to add? c.                  Do you not think so? d.                  Repeating the question
11.		Which of the following is not a case of non-response error? a.                  The sampling frame is incomplete b.                  Only 10 of 20 selected subjects were available c.                  3 out of 10 selected subjects refuse to answer d.                  The respondent could not understand some of the questions
12.		Response error can be caused by? a.                  Respondent was not aware of the real facts b.                  Respondent falsifies facts consciously c.                  Interviewer makes an incorrect entry d.                  A and B are correct e.                  All of the above
13.		Which of the following is the best reason for using telephone interviews? a.                  Easy availability of directories b.                  Low cost compared to field interviews c.                  CATI is possible d.                  Use of random number dialing
14.		Which of the following is the least important drawback to the use of telephones for conducting surveys? a.                  Such interviews need to be limited to 5 to 8 minutes. b.                  A substantial proportion of U.S. households do not have phones. c.                  There is really no effective way to contact the many people with unlisted numbers. d.                  The medium limits the complexity of the questioning process and the use of sorting techniques.
15.		Which of the following factors does research show to have the greatest positive impact on rate of returns in mail surveys? a.                  Follow-up mailings. b.                  Pre-notification of a questionnaire coming. c.                  Keeping the questionnaire relatively short. d.                  Using first class postage stamps when sending the questionnaire out.

1		Which form of response is considered to be superior when you seek to discover opinions and degrees of knowledge 1.      Open response question. 2.      Dichotomous question. 3.      Multiple choice question. 4.      No differences between them in this regard.
2		When confronted by a management dilemma you should? 1.      Immediately frame and detail a survey instrument 2.      Identify the sampling frame 3.      Reframe the issue in terms of research questions and then outline investigative and measurement questions 4.      Do A and C together
3		The design of the instrument depends on? 1.      Whether it is an interview, telephone, or mail 2.      The place where you interact with the respondent 3.      Other research considerations 4.      Both A and B
4		Your question wording can be affected by? 1.      The literacy level of the respondents 2.      The communication mode chosen 3.      The desire to eliminate bias 4.      All of the above
5		If you have a group of six experts on automobiles, and you wish to get their independent opinions on a new car, which of the following do you recommend? 1.      A mail questionnaire, which purports to be objective and neutral 2.      Telephone interviews 3.      In-depth interviews    4.      Do B and C sequentially
6	a	The sponsor and purpose of a study can be at times be justifiably concealed so that: 1.      A bias desired by the sponsor can be introduced 2.      If unethical questions are on the questionnaire the sponsor's reputation is not affected 3.      Answers lack bias 4.      Both B and C
7		Disguising the study objective is often done if Respondents have information but may not give it consciously, if they know the study objective 1.      Respondents falsify facts if they know the study objective 2.      Disguising the study objectives provides additional insights 3.      All of the above 4.      A and C only
8		For a survey relating to traffic accidents, which of the following questions is incorrectly classified? 1.      State your Name, Age, and Gender (Administrative and Classification question) 2.      How many accidents have you had in the last two years (Target) 3.      Name of Interviewer, Date and Place of Interview (Classification) 4.      All are correctly classified
9		Which of the following are reasons for excluding a question on an instrument? 1.      Though interesting, the information cannot be used 2.      The question is relevant and focused 3.      The question can be interpreted differently by different people 4.      The respondent would not remember the facts 5.      All of the above 6.      A, C, and D are all reasons for excluding a question
10		A question should be 1.      Stated in sophisticated and esoteric vocabulary 2.      Capable of being interpreted at "different levels" of meaning 3.      Relevant to the respondent 4.      Stated in terms of a shared and easily understood vocabulary      5.      B and D are both correct
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